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A 48-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant has just presented to you at your antenatal clinic. She is in good health and reports good foetal movements. You perform a blood pressure reading which reads at 123/82 and you are happy with this. You perform a urine dip and the reading is 1+ protein on dipstick testing. She has no other symptoms of pre-eclampsia. What is the next most appropriate step in this woman’s care?