A 61 year old male presents to your general practice clinic with some discomfort in his chest. He begins to explain that sometimes this pain radiates to his back and can be ‘tearing’ in nature. He denies any pain radiating to his jaw, shoulders or arms and he does not currently have any chest pain. On examination you note a strong pulse on his abdomen. You note that his most likely diagnosis is AAA, therefore, you refer him for an ultrasound scan. Which of the following is correct about his management?
By pa2be admin|2020-11-12T20:27:58+00:00November 12th, 2020|