You are seeing a 45-year-old male in a GP setting who has presented with a mass in the scrotum, which you cannot get above on palpation. A cough impulse is also present, so you suspect an inguinal hernia. The mass is extremely painful on palpation and is irreducible. The patient is also complaining of abdominal pain and has vomited three times since the pain came on. Given the diagnosis, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
By pa2be admin|2020-10-08T06:28:29+00:00October 8th, 2020|